“RE: Isaiah 9:6 mention Mesiah as Mighty God meaning Yahusha is The Almighty or?”
This short note was sent to me by a friend, to support his opinion that Jesus is not God. I am not sure about the original source of this note but I can be sure that the source won’t be too far from the one who wrote, “IF MESIAH IS THE ALMIGHTY THEN HOW CAN ALMIGHTY BE TEMPTED WITH LUST AND EVIL?” and “The Historic Translation of John 1:3-4” we have just discussed. May the Holy Spirit help me to bring up all things that are not parallel to the Truth, Who is also the Way and the Life – Jesus the Christ.
The word “God” (Elohim) is properly applied to Yahusha in Heb.1:9 and Jn.20:28. Both words are from the Greek word “theos” which was also used in reference to Satan (2 Cor.4:4) and Herod (Acts 12:22). It has the same meaning as the Hebrew word “Elohim” and can be applied to men, angels, and the Almighty. Ps.82:6 applies it to any child of the Most High; “I have said, Ye are gods [Elohim]; and all of you are children of the most High.” It simply means “a mighty one among his people.”
I think it will be wise to see all the verses brought up by the writer the we can relate them to the writer’s arguments.
“You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has set you above your companions by anointing you with the oil of joy.” (Hebrews 1:9, NIV)
“Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!”” (John 20:28, NIV)
“The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.” (2 Corinthians 4:4, NIV)
“(21) >On the appointed day Herod, wearing his royal robes, sat on his throne and delivered a public address to the people. (22) They shouted, “This is the voice of a god, not of a man.” (Acts 12:21-22)
“(6) I said, ‘You are “gods”; you are all sons of the Most High.’ (7) But you will die like mere men; you will fall like every other ruler.” (8) Rise up, O God, judge the earth, for all the nations are your inheritance.” (Psalm 82:6-8)
What the writer has in mind is that if the word “theos” or “god” can refer to anybody from Satan, man, angel to God, then Jesus, as is mentioned in Hebrews 1:9 and John 20:28 can also be any person from that list. This is very dangerous argument since no one can be Satan and God at the same time. Even though the meaning of the word “theos” does not change in the above verses, it should be easily understood that the persons it refers to are not the same. Therefore, “theos” in New Testament is translated to “god(s)” but is written differently depending of who it refers to. It is clear that the writer of the Book of Hebrews in Hebrews 1:9 and Thomas in John 20:28 was pointing to the Almighty God, the Maker of Heaven and Earth, Who used the same term mentioned in 2 Corinthians 4:4 and in Acts 12:21-22, when He said, “You shall have no other gods before me” (Exodus 20:3). Psalm 82:6-8 illustrates beautifully how God remarkably differs from god(s).
It is not wrong to call Yahusha an Elohim or a god. The problem lies in believing he is the one true “God,” Yahweh Almighty. Yahusha made it clear that he was not, in Jn.17:3; “And this is life eternal, that they might know thee [Yahweh] the only true Elohim, and Yahusha Messiah, whom thou hast sent.” The Apostle Paul declared the same thing in 1 Cor.8:6; “But to us there is but one Elohim, the Father [Yahweh], of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Master Yahusha Messiah, by whom are all things, and we by him.”
First I should honestly paraphrase the first sentence to “It is true to call Jesus as Elohim or God,” since Elohim deserves the capital ‘G’. Now we can see that the real problem does NOT lies in our Bible but in the hearts of those who find it difficult to believe or refuse to believe that Jesus is the I AM. Let us look at the verses mentioned above (I like to add one or two consequent to get a better understanding of the main verses).
“(3) Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. (4) I have brought you glory on earth by completing the work you gave me to do. (5) And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.” (John 17:3-5)
I don’t thinks that when we put the writer on Jesus’ shoes he/she is able to formulate any sentence different from verse 3. The writer put too much emphasis on “whom you have sent,” to differ Jesus form the Father. The writer failed to see that if it should only God to be known to earn eternal life, then the phrase, “and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent,” should not be there in the first place. There is no point of knowing the messenger unless he stands on the same level as the one who sent him. The short and simple meaning of this verse is “Eternal life is to know God and Jesus Christ.” Besides, verse 4 clearly show that Jesus was with God (pre-existence) and share His glory before the creation, as John 1:1 says, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”
“(5) For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”), (6) yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.” (1 Corinthians 8:5-6)
God in the Old Testament always reminded the people of Israel that “I am the LORD your God.” This two terms refer to One Person and never use separately for different persons, as Thomas proclaimed in John 20:28, NIV, “My Lord and my God!” , concerning Jesus. In these verses, Paul was setting apart “one and true Lord our God” from many “gods” and “lords” (idols). Look at the parallelism of “from whom all things” with “through whom all things” and “for whom we live” with “through whom we live.” Paul was talking about the same one God, Who is the creator and provider of all things and Who is the source and the giver of life. Paul had no intention to present God and Jesus as two separate Persons, but the Holy Spirit knew that he had common audience to be taught. Since both Persons were placed on the same level by Paul, then the two must be of one God.
Yahusha : Everlasting Father or the Almighty Heavenly Father?
Is.9:6 reads, “For unto us a child is born, untous a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: andhis name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.” Is this prophecy declaringYeshua the Messiah to be the Heavenly Father? There are at least 27names in the Bible with the same Hebrew construction as in this verse. Each one means the “father of (something).” For Quote, Abishua means “father of plenty.”
I don’t think the writer has anything to object here. Can ‘father of plenty’ be written ‘plentiful father’ without loosing its basic meaning? Since ‘the Heavenly Father’ or ‘the Father of Heaven’ or ‘the Father in Heaven’ is the same Person, then there shouldn’t be any problem with ‘the Father of Eternity’ or ‘the Eternal Father’ or ‘the Everlasting Father.’
Instead of translating the phrase in Is.9:6 as “Father of eternity,” the KJV reversed the sequence making the true meaning harder to discern. Several newer versions correct this mistake such as The Emphasized Bible, The Bible in BasicEnglish, The New American Bible, The Holy Bible; A Translation Fromthe Latin Vulgate in the Light of the Hebrew and Greek Originals, andThe New English Bible, just to name a few. Yeshua is the Father of Eternity because eternal life comes to us through him. And so it iswritten in Heb.5:9, “And being made perfect, he became the author (or father) of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;”
We’ve better look at some versions of this Isaiah 9:6, before we talk about it and let us start with the older ones.
“Forsothe a litil child is borun to vs, and a sone is youun to vs, and prinsehod is maad on his schuldre; and his name schal be clepid Wondurful, A counselour, God, Strong, A fadir of the world to comynge, A prince of pees.” (Isaiah 9:6, John Wycliffe’s Translation)
“For a Child hath been born to us, A Son hath been given to us, And the princely power is on his shoulder, And He doth call his name Wonderful, Counsellor, Mighty God, Father of Eternity, Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6, Young Literal Translation)
“For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6, KJV)
“For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.” (Isaiah 9:6, NIV)
It is obvious that Wycliffe and KJV separate the ‘Wonderful’ from the ‘Counselor’ while Young and NIV put them together as ‘Wonderful Counselor’. On the other hand, Wycliffe used ‘A Father of the world to come’, Young put ‘Father of Eternity’, while KJV and NIV used ‘Everlasting Father.’ We don’t have a problem with these, do we? Why does the writer? KJV and even NIV do not do anything wrong with the ‘Everlasting Father’ and therefore correction will be unnecessary. The writer should learn to be honest to admit that the term “Father” in the Bible has NEVER been associated with no one else but God – God the Father. The writer can always refer also to the term ‘God’ or ‘Mighty God’ and stop making up problems as if they really exist.
These two older Bible has put Hebrews 5:9 properly, as,
“and was made parfaite and the cause of eternall saluacion vnto all them that obey him:” (Hebrews 5:9, Tyndale’s Translation)
“and having been made perfect, he did become to all those obeying him a cause of salvation age-during,” (Hebrews 5:9, Young Literal Translation)
“and having been made perfect, he became unto all them that obey him the author of eternal salvation;” (Hebrews 5:9, American Standard Version)
The term “author” in newer version Bible came from the term “cause” used in older ones, which was translated from Greek word “aitios.” This “cause” or “author” cannot be translated as “father” which is “patera” in Greek (patEr = your father; patros = my father). Therefore, we should reject the writer’s statement completely.
The central prophecy in Isaiah 9:6 stays that the promised Child is Jesus the Messiah, Who is also God in flesh. Amen. Hallelujah!